Test your knowledge of clinical pharmacy practice, laboratory data interpretation, and related concepts.
Test Your Knowledge
Showing questions 101 - 120 of 315
101. What is one of the key responsibilities of a pharmacist during ward rounds?
Pharmacists participate in ward rounds to detect adverse drug reactions and drug interactions, among other roles.
102. When should a detailed medication history be collected from a newly admitted patient, and from whom?
For all newly admitted patients, it is appropriate to collect a detailed medication history from the patient or their carers, which needs to be cross-checked with information collected by other healthcare professionals.
103. What information should be supplied on a Therapeutic Drug Monitoring (TDM) request form, in addition to patient demographics and indication for therapy?
Apart from the patient’s name, age, gender, medical record number and indication for therapy, the following information should be supplied: the dosing and sampling details.
104. Which statement about CLIA-waived Point-of-Care Testing (POCT) for infectious diseases is true?
Currently, all CLIA-waived POC tests for infectious diseases that are applicable to the ambulatory care clinic or community pharmacy settings are qualitative.
105. What is the purpose of the 'explosion' process when searching computerised databases with hierarchical lists of headings?
Searching for related terms within a hierarchical list of headings is called an ‘explosion’, and the process provides considerable power and flexibility for the user.
106. Which of the following describes a 'macrocytic' red blood cell, and what are its potential causes?
Abnormally large cells have an increased MCV and are called macrocytic, which can be caused by vitamin B12 and folate deficiency.
107. What is the clinical utility of a 'cumulative antibiogram' in managing infectious diseases?
The cumulative antibiogram is a useful tool for selecting empiric antibiotic therapy, where an antibiotic is selected based on the local susceptibility patterns of the most likely infecting organism causing the patient’s infection.
108. What type of media are blood and chocolate agar plates considered, due to their ability to support the growth of many different types of aerobic and anaerobic bacteria?
Blood and chocolate agar plates are nutritive or enrichment media because they support the growth of many different types of aerobic and anaerobic bacteria.
109. What is the primary characteristic of 'strict aerobes' as microorganisms?
Strict aerobes are microorganisms that require oxygen for growth.
110. What is the main purpose of an 'investigator's brochure' (IB) in clinical research?
An Ethics Committee must review the Investigator’s Brochure (IB), which contains available safety information about the investigational product.
111. When evaluating a pharmacoeconomic study, what is considered 'crucial' because it dictates the type of data to be collected and how variables are analysed?
The perspective is crucial in a pharmacoeconomic analysis because it dictates the type of data to be collected and how the variables are to be analysed.
112. Which of the following is a common cause of 'neutropenia'?
Neutropenia (<1500 cells/µL) can be caused by radiation exposure and certain medications like antineoplastic cytotoxic agents.
113. What is the ultimate objective when managing a poison information query?
All these help in resolving identified problems to improve patient care in a timely manner.
114. Which type of literature is crucial for obtaining foundational content and background material essential for understanding basic concepts and historical data relevant to a topic?
Tertiary literature includes reference texts and monograph databases, which provide appropriate foundational content and background material essential for understanding basic con-cepts and historical data relevant to the topic.
115. What physiological change occurs in neonates, infants, and young adolescents that influences drug disposition and dose requirements compared to adults?
As neonates develop into infants and young adolescents, a number of physiologic events occur which change the body composition (for example, changes in body water, body fat, plasma proteins and hormonal composition); these changes influence drug disposition and dose requirements.
116. What is a common cause of a 'false positive' in screening tests for laboratory abnormalities?
Laboratory testing may fail to identify abnormalities that are present (false negatives [FNs]) or identify abnormalities that are not present (false positives [FPs]).
117. Which of the following is a common characteristic of 'anemia of chronic disease' (or anemia of inflammation)?
Chronic inflammatory diseases such as RA and SLE are commonly associated with anemia (low hemoglobin and hematocrit). The RBC indices often indicate that the anemia is normochromic and normocytic.
118. What is the primary function of granulocytes in the blood?
Granulocytes are phagocytes (eating cells) and derive their name from the presence of granules within the cytoplasm. The granules store lysozymes and other chemicals needed to oxidize and enzymatically destroy foreign cells.
119. What is the typical normal activity level for Antithrombin (AT) in hypercoagulable states?
For AT, the normal activity level is 80–130%.
120. What is a common cause of 'thrombocytopenia' (rapid destruction of platelets)?
Several diseases, such as thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and hemolytic-uremic syndrome, result in rapid destruction of platelets. Other causes of thrombocytopenia include viral infections.